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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Which characterization of Post-Settlement Support and Client Relationship Management is most accurate for National Mortgage Broker Exam (Australia)? A mortgage broker has successfully settled a variable rate home loan for a first-home buyer. Following the settlement, the broker seeks to implement a structured client relationship management process. In the context of the Best Interests Duty (BID) and professional standards, which of the following best describes the broker’s ongoing obligations and best practices?
Correct
Correct: Under the Best Interests Duty (BID) and professional industry standards, a broker’s role extends beyond the transaction. Proactive monitoring and periodic reviews are essential to ensure that the credit product remains suitable as market conditions change or the client’s life stages evolve. This approach demonstrates a commitment to the client’s long-term financial well-being and ensures the broker continues to act in the client’s best interest throughout the life of the loan.
Incorrect: The approach of restricting contact to compliance documents is incorrect because it ignores the professional expectation of ongoing service and the potential for the product to become unsuitable over time. Relying entirely on the lender for communication is flawed as it abdicates the broker’s role as a professional advisor who provides tailored guidance. A reactive support model is insufficient because it fails to identify opportunities for better client outcomes (such as lower rates or better features) until a problem has already occurred, which is inconsistent with the spirit of acting in the client’s best interest.
Takeaway: Effective post-settlement management requires a proactive, review-based approach to ensure credit products remain aligned with the client’s evolving needs and the broader market landscape.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Best Interests Duty (BID) and professional industry standards, a broker’s role extends beyond the transaction. Proactive monitoring and periodic reviews are essential to ensure that the credit product remains suitable as market conditions change or the client’s life stages evolve. This approach demonstrates a commitment to the client’s long-term financial well-being and ensures the broker continues to act in the client’s best interest throughout the life of the loan.
Incorrect: The approach of restricting contact to compliance documents is incorrect because it ignores the professional expectation of ongoing service and the potential for the product to become unsuitable over time. Relying entirely on the lender for communication is flawed as it abdicates the broker’s role as a professional advisor who provides tailored guidance. A reactive support model is insufficient because it fails to identify opportunities for better client outcomes (such as lower rates or better features) until a problem has already occurred, which is inconsistent with the spirit of acting in the client’s best interest.
Takeaway: Effective post-settlement management requires a proactive, review-based approach to ensure credit products remain aligned with the client’s evolving needs and the broader market landscape.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
An incident ticket at a private bank is raised about Understanding Property Valuation and Appraisal during whistleblowing. The report states that a mortgage broker has been consistently pressuring contract valuers to reconsider their assessments when the valuation comes in lower than the contract price, citing “market momentum” as a justification. The report notes that in the last 6 months, this broker has successfully requested “upward adjustments” on 12 separate valuations without providing new evidence of comparable sales. In accordance with the National Consumer Credit Protection Act and industry best practices, why is this behavior problematic?
Correct
Correct: Valuer independence is a cornerstone of the Australian mortgage industry. Pressuring a valuer to increase a property’s value without objective evidence, such as new comparable sales data, compromises the integrity of the loan-to-value ratio (LVR) calculation. Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 and the Best Interests Duty (BID), brokers must ensure that the credit assessment is based on accurate information. An inflated valuation can result in a consumer entering a credit contract that is unsuitable because the underlying security does not sufficiently cover the debt, increasing the risk of financial hardship.
Incorrect: Option B is incorrect because charging a fee for unethical or non-compliant behavior does not make the behavior acceptable; in fact, it could introduce further conflicts of interest. Option C is incorrect because a broker’s subjective opinion on market momentum does not override the requirement for an independent, evidence-based appraisal by a qualified professional. Option D is incorrect because the core issue is the interference with the valuer’s independence and the resulting risk to the lender and consumer, not the absence of a procedural contract.
Takeaway: Maintaining the independence of property valuations is essential for accurate risk assessment and compliance with Australian responsible lending laws.
Incorrect
Correct: Valuer independence is a cornerstone of the Australian mortgage industry. Pressuring a valuer to increase a property’s value without objective evidence, such as new comparable sales data, compromises the integrity of the loan-to-value ratio (LVR) calculation. Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 and the Best Interests Duty (BID), brokers must ensure that the credit assessment is based on accurate information. An inflated valuation can result in a consumer entering a credit contract that is unsuitable because the underlying security does not sufficiently cover the debt, increasing the risk of financial hardship.
Incorrect: Option B is incorrect because charging a fee for unethical or non-compliant behavior does not make the behavior acceptable; in fact, it could introduce further conflicts of interest. Option C is incorrect because a broker’s subjective opinion on market momentum does not override the requirement for an independent, evidence-based appraisal by a qualified professional. Option D is incorrect because the core issue is the interference with the valuer’s independence and the resulting risk to the lender and consumer, not the absence of a procedural contract.
Takeaway: Maintaining the independence of property valuations is essential for accurate risk assessment and compliance with Australian responsible lending laws.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Following an alert related to Providing Clear and Understandable Information to Clients, what is the proper response when a mortgage broker is presenting a complex construction loan to a first-time borrower who appears confused by the drawdown process and interest-only period?
Correct
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act (NCCP) and the Best Interests Duty (BID), brokers are required to ensure that clients are fully informed and understand the credit assistance being provided. This involves breaking down complex products into plain language, providing clear documentation like the Credit Proposal Disclosure, and verifying that the client comprehends the risks and features of the specific loan structure.
Incorrect: Directing a client to a technical Product Disclosure Statement without guidance fails to meet the broker’s duty to provide clear and understandable information. Focusing only on long-term repayments ignores the immediate risks and costs associated with the construction phase. Relying on a signed waiver for verbal information is insufficient for regulatory compliance and does not demonstrate that the client actually understood the information provided.
Takeaway: Brokers must use plain language and clear documentation to ensure clients fully comprehend the features and risks of a credit product to satisfy regulatory and ethical obligations.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act (NCCP) and the Best Interests Duty (BID), brokers are required to ensure that clients are fully informed and understand the credit assistance being provided. This involves breaking down complex products into plain language, providing clear documentation like the Credit Proposal Disclosure, and verifying that the client comprehends the risks and features of the specific loan structure.
Incorrect: Directing a client to a technical Product Disclosure Statement without guidance fails to meet the broker’s duty to provide clear and understandable information. Focusing only on long-term repayments ignores the immediate risks and costs associated with the construction phase. Relying on a signed waiver for verbal information is insufficient for regulatory compliance and does not demonstrate that the client actually understood the information provided.
Takeaway: Brokers must use plain language and clear documentation to ensure clients fully comprehend the features and risks of a credit product to satisfy regulatory and ethical obligations.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Which practical consideration is most relevant when executing Documenting Client Interactions and Advice? A mortgage broker is assisting a client who wishes to refinance their existing owner-occupied home loan into a split-loan structure, incorporating both a fixed-rate component for stability and a variable-rate component with an offset account to facilitate extra repayments. To comply with the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act) and Responsible Lending Obligations (RLOs), the broker must ensure the file reflects more than just the final product choice.
Correct
Correct: Under the NCCP Act and ASIC Regulatory Guide 209, brokers must demonstrate that they have made reasonable inquiries into the client’s requirements and objectives. Documenting the ‘why’—the analytical nexus between the client’s specific needs (certainty and flexibility) and the recommended product features (split loan and offset)—is critical to proving the loan is not unsuitable for that specific consumer.
Incorrect: Providing a list of market options or marketing materials does not satisfy the requirement to assess the suitability of a specific product for a specific client. Verbatim transcriptions, while thorough, often fail to capture the broker’s professional judgment and the reasoning behind the advice. Prioritizing signatures on disclosure documents is a procedural step but does not replace the substantive requirement to document the suitability assessment process itself.
Takeaway: Effective documentation must clearly articulate the professional rationale connecting a client’s unique financial objectives to the specific features of the recommended credit product.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the NCCP Act and ASIC Regulatory Guide 209, brokers must demonstrate that they have made reasonable inquiries into the client’s requirements and objectives. Documenting the ‘why’—the analytical nexus between the client’s specific needs (certainty and flexibility) and the recommended product features (split loan and offset)—is critical to proving the loan is not unsuitable for that specific consumer.
Incorrect: Providing a list of market options or marketing materials does not satisfy the requirement to assess the suitability of a specific product for a specific client. Verbatim transcriptions, while thorough, often fail to capture the broker’s professional judgment and the reasoning behind the advice. Prioritizing signatures on disclosure documents is a procedural step but does not replace the substantive requirement to document the suitability assessment process itself.
Takeaway: Effective documentation must clearly articulate the professional rationale connecting a client’s unique financial objectives to the specific features of the recommended credit product.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A whistleblower report received by a wealth manager alleges issues with Types of Property: Freehold, Leasehold, Strata Title during internal audit remediation. The allegation claims that several high-value loan files processed in the last 18 months involving Australian Capital Territory (ACT) residential properties were incorrectly categorized as freehold. This misclassification resulted in the omission of critical checks regarding the remaining duration of the Crown lease relative to the proposed 30-year mortgage term. In the context of Australian property law and mortgage broking, which of the following best describes the primary risk associated with misidentifying a leasehold property as freehold during the credit assessment process?
Correct
Correct: Leasehold title, common in the ACT and some specific coastal or church-owned areas, grants the owner the right to use the land for a specific period. Unlike freehold title, which represents absolute ownership, a leasehold is a ‘wasting asset.’ Lenders typically require the remaining lease term to exceed the mortgage term by a significant margin (often 10 to 20 years) to ensure the security remains viable. Misidentifying this as freehold leads to a failure to assess whether the lease duration provides adequate security for the loan.
Incorrect: The claim that leaseholds cannot be mortgaged is incorrect, as they are frequently used as security provided the lease term is sufficient. The assertion regarding government-exclusive insurance is false; leasehold owners are still responsible for insuring their interests or participating in strata insurance where applicable. While sub-leasing rights are a feature of some leases, they are not the primary risk factor or the defining regulatory concern when distinguishing between freehold and leasehold title for mortgage security purposes.
Takeaway: Accurate identification of property title is essential because leasehold interests are time-limited assets that require the remaining lease term to significantly exceed the mortgage duration to protect the lender’s security.
Incorrect
Correct: Leasehold title, common in the ACT and some specific coastal or church-owned areas, grants the owner the right to use the land for a specific period. Unlike freehold title, which represents absolute ownership, a leasehold is a ‘wasting asset.’ Lenders typically require the remaining lease term to exceed the mortgage term by a significant margin (often 10 to 20 years) to ensure the security remains viable. Misidentifying this as freehold leads to a failure to assess whether the lease duration provides adequate security for the loan.
Incorrect: The claim that leaseholds cannot be mortgaged is incorrect, as they are frequently used as security provided the lease term is sufficient. The assertion regarding government-exclusive insurance is false; leasehold owners are still responsible for insuring their interests or participating in strata insurance where applicable. While sub-leasing rights are a feature of some leases, they are not the primary risk factor or the defining regulatory concern when distinguishing between freehold and leasehold title for mortgage security purposes.
Takeaway: Accurate identification of property title is essential because leasehold interests are time-limited assets that require the remaining lease term to significantly exceed the mortgage duration to protect the lender’s security.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A transaction monitoring alert at an audit firm has triggered regarding Loan Structuring and Product Suitability during onboarding. The alert details show that a mortgage broker recommended a five-year interest-only period on a $750,000 owner-occupied home loan for a client whose primary stated objective is to minimize the total interest paid over the life of the loan. The broker’s file indicates the interest-only structure was suggested to assist the client with short-term cash flow for a planned renovation, even though the interest-only interest rate is significantly higher than the available principal and interest rate. Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP), what is the primary regulatory issue with this loan structure?
Correct
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 and ASIC’s Regulatory Guide 209, a credit product is deemed unsuitable if it does not meet the consumer’s specific requirements and objectives. In this scenario, the client’s primary goal is to minimize total interest paid. An interest-only period on an owner-occupied loan typically carries a higher interest rate and results in a larger total interest bill because the principal balance does not reduce during the interest-only term. Therefore, the recommendation fails the suitability test regardless of the client’s ability to afford the payments.
Incorrect: Demonstrating repayment capacity (affordability) is only one part of the Responsible Lending Obligations; the product must also meet the client’s objectives. Providing disclosure documents like a Statement of Credit Assistance does not rectify a recommendation that is fundamentally unsuitable for the client’s goals. Comparing multiple lenders or finding the lowest rate within a specific product category (interest-only) does not justify selecting a product category that is inherently at odds with the client’s stated financial priorities.
Takeaway: To comply with Responsible Lending Obligations, a broker must ensure the loan structure aligns with the client’s stated financial objectives, even if the client has the capacity to make the repayments.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 and ASIC’s Regulatory Guide 209, a credit product is deemed unsuitable if it does not meet the consumer’s specific requirements and objectives. In this scenario, the client’s primary goal is to minimize total interest paid. An interest-only period on an owner-occupied loan typically carries a higher interest rate and results in a larger total interest bill because the principal balance does not reduce during the interest-only term. Therefore, the recommendation fails the suitability test regardless of the client’s ability to afford the payments.
Incorrect: Demonstrating repayment capacity (affordability) is only one part of the Responsible Lending Obligations; the product must also meet the client’s objectives. Providing disclosure documents like a Statement of Credit Assistance does not rectify a recommendation that is fundamentally unsuitable for the client’s goals. Comparing multiple lenders or finding the lowest rate within a specific product category (interest-only) does not justify selecting a product category that is inherently at odds with the client’s stated financial priorities.
Takeaway: To comply with Responsible Lending Obligations, a broker must ensure the loan structure aligns with the client’s stated financial objectives, even if the client has the capacity to make the repayments.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
During a committee meeting at a wealth manager, a question arises about Assessing Loan Affordability and Serviceability as part of market conduct. The discussion reveals that several brokers have been consistently applying the Household Expenditure Measure (HEM) as the primary tool for determining living expenses, even for high-net-worth clients whose lifestyle suggests significantly higher outgoings. The compliance officer notes that recent ASIC surveillance emphasizes the need for more granular data. To align with the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act) and Regulatory Guide 209, which approach should the firm mandate for its brokers?
Correct
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act) and ASIC Regulatory Guide 209, credit assistance providers must make reasonable inquiries about the consumer’s financial situation and take reasonable steps to verify that information. While benchmarks like the Household Expenditure Measure (HEM) can be used as a point of comparison, they are not a substitute for individual inquiry. If verified actual expenses are higher than the benchmark, the actual expenses must be used to determine if the loan is unsuitable.
Incorrect: Using benchmarks as a default substitute for inquiry or relying on debt-to-income ratios alone fails the ‘reasonable steps to verify’ test required by Responsible Lending Obligations (RLOs). Self-certification is insufficient under the NCCP Act as it lacks the required independent verification of the consumer’s financial capacity. Applying arbitrary percentage loadings to benchmarks does not satisfy the requirement to understand and verify the specific consumer’s actual financial circumstances and spending patterns.
Takeaway: Responsible lending requires verifying actual living expenses rather than relying solely on industry benchmarks to ensure a loan is not unsuitable for the specific consumer.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act) and ASIC Regulatory Guide 209, credit assistance providers must make reasonable inquiries about the consumer’s financial situation and take reasonable steps to verify that information. While benchmarks like the Household Expenditure Measure (HEM) can be used as a point of comparison, they are not a substitute for individual inquiry. If verified actual expenses are higher than the benchmark, the actual expenses must be used to determine if the loan is unsuitable.
Incorrect: Using benchmarks as a default substitute for inquiry or relying on debt-to-income ratios alone fails the ‘reasonable steps to verify’ test required by Responsible Lending Obligations (RLOs). Self-certification is insufficient under the NCCP Act as it lacks the required independent verification of the consumer’s financial capacity. Applying arbitrary percentage loadings to benchmarks does not satisfy the requirement to understand and verify the specific consumer’s actual financial circumstances and spending patterns.
Takeaway: Responsible lending requires verifying actual living expenses rather than relying solely on industry benchmarks to ensure a loan is not unsuitable for the specific consumer.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
How can Disclosure of Conflicts of Interest be most effectively translated into action? A mortgage broker is conducting a preliminary assessment for a client and realizes that the most suitable loan product is offered by a lender that is also a significant shareholder in the broker’s aggregator group. To ensure compliance with the National Consumer Credit Protection Act and the Best Interests Duty (BID), which of the following actions represents the most appropriate application of disclosure requirements?
Correct
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 and ASIC Regulatory Guide 273, mortgage brokers must comply with the Best Interests Duty. This involves identifying and disclosing any conflicts of interest, such as ownership links between an aggregator and a lender. Effective action requires proactive, written disclosure in the Credit Guide (at the start of the relationship) and the Statement of Credit Assistance (when providing advice), ensuring the client understands how the relationship might influence the broker’s recommendation.
Incorrect: Relying on lender documents is insufficient because the broker has an independent obligation to disclose conflicts at the time of providing credit assistance. Internal registers are necessary for compliance but do not satisfy the disclosure requirement to the consumer. Verbal disclosures are difficult to prove and do not meet the formal documentation standards required for Credit Guides and Statements of Credit Assistance under the NCCP Act.
Takeaway: Effective conflict disclosure must be proactive, written, and specific to the relationship to ensure the client can make an informed decision under the Best Interests Duty framework.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 and ASIC Regulatory Guide 273, mortgage brokers must comply with the Best Interests Duty. This involves identifying and disclosing any conflicts of interest, such as ownership links between an aggregator and a lender. Effective action requires proactive, written disclosure in the Credit Guide (at the start of the relationship) and the Statement of Credit Assistance (when providing advice), ensuring the client understands how the relationship might influence the broker’s recommendation.
Incorrect: Relying on lender documents is insufficient because the broker has an independent obligation to disclose conflicts at the time of providing credit assistance. Internal registers are necessary for compliance but do not satisfy the disclosure requirement to the consumer. Verbal disclosures are difficult to prove and do not meet the formal documentation standards required for Credit Guides and Statements of Credit Assistance under the NCCP Act.
Takeaway: Effective conflict disclosure must be proactive, written, and specific to the relationship to ensure the client can make an informed decision under the Best Interests Duty framework.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
During a routine supervisory engagement with a private bank, the authority asks about Understanding Easements and Covenants in the context of regulatory inspection. They observe that several high-value loan applications were approved despite the presence of restrictive covenants that limit the height of future developments on the subject properties. In this context, what is the most critical risk assessment action a mortgage broker should take when identifying a significant easement or covenant on a property title during the pre-approval phase?
Correct
Correct: Easements and covenants are legal interests or restrictions recorded on a property title that can significantly affect its market value and use. A mortgage broker’s role in risk assessment involves identifying these encumbrances and ensuring the lender is fully informed. Since the property serves as security for the loan, the valuation must reflect any limitations on development or access rights. Notifying the valuer ensures the security assessment is accurate and the lender is not over-exposed to risk.
Incorrect: Advising a client to seek a legal discharge of a covenant constitutes legal advice, which is outside the professional scope of a mortgage broker. Relying on title insurance is an inadequate risk management strategy because insurance typically covers defects in title rather than the inherent loss of value caused by a known, valid covenant. While zoning maps are relevant for land use, they do not override or necessarily correlate with private title encumbrances like easements, which are specific to the property’s legal title.
Takeaway: Mortgage brokers must ensure that all title encumbrances are disclosed and factored into the valuation process to maintain the integrity of the lender’s security interest.
Incorrect
Correct: Easements and covenants are legal interests or restrictions recorded on a property title that can significantly affect its market value and use. A mortgage broker’s role in risk assessment involves identifying these encumbrances and ensuring the lender is fully informed. Since the property serves as security for the loan, the valuation must reflect any limitations on development or access rights. Notifying the valuer ensures the security assessment is accurate and the lender is not over-exposed to risk.
Incorrect: Advising a client to seek a legal discharge of a covenant constitutes legal advice, which is outside the professional scope of a mortgage broker. Relying on title insurance is an inadequate risk management strategy because insurance typically covers defects in title rather than the inherent loss of value caused by a known, valid covenant. While zoning maps are relevant for land use, they do not override or necessarily correlate with private title encumbrances like easements, which are specific to the property’s legal title.
Takeaway: Mortgage brokers must ensure that all title encumbrances are disclosed and factored into the valuation process to maintain the integrity of the lender’s security interest.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
An escalation from the front office at a broker-dealer concerns Commission Structures: Upfront, Trail, Broker Fees during data protection. The team reports that a senior broker has been consistently recommending products from a specific lender that offers a higher upfront commission but a lower trail commission compared to other lenders on the panel. During a compliance review of the Credit Proposal Disclosure Document (CPDD), it was noted that while the upfront commission was disclosed, the ongoing trail commission was described in vague terms without specifying the frequency or the basis of calculation. The broker argues that since the trail commission is paid by the lender and does not increase the cost to the consumer, detailed disclosure is unnecessary under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act). Which of the following best describes the broker’s regulatory obligation regarding the disclosure of these commission structures?
Correct
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act) and ASIC regulatory requirements, credit licensees are required to provide a Credit Proposal Disclosure Document (CPDD) to the consumer. This document must include a reasonable estimate of the total amount of any commission the licensee or its representatives will receive, which encompasses both upfront and trail commissions. This transparency is essential for the consumer to understand potential conflicts of interest that might influence the broker’s recommendation.
Incorrect: The argument that only upfront commissions need disclosure is incorrect because the NCCP Act requires disclosure of all commissions to manage conflicts of interest, regardless of when they are paid. The claim that trail commissions are only disclosable if a broker fee is charged is false; commission disclosure is a standalone requirement. Finally, the ‘standard’ nature of a commission or its perceived lack of influence does not exempt the licensee from the legal obligation to provide a reasonable estimate of the remuneration received from the lender.
Takeaway: Mortgage brokers must provide clear and reasonable estimates of both upfront and trail commissions in the Credit Proposal Disclosure Document to ensure full transparency and compliance with the NCCP Act.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the National Consumer Credit Protection Act 2009 (NCCP Act) and ASIC regulatory requirements, credit licensees are required to provide a Credit Proposal Disclosure Document (CPDD) to the consumer. This document must include a reasonable estimate of the total amount of any commission the licensee or its representatives will receive, which encompasses both upfront and trail commissions. This transparency is essential for the consumer to understand potential conflicts of interest that might influence the broker’s recommendation.
Incorrect: The argument that only upfront commissions need disclosure is incorrect because the NCCP Act requires disclosure of all commissions to manage conflicts of interest, regardless of when they are paid. The claim that trail commissions are only disclosable if a broker fee is charged is false; commission disclosure is a standalone requirement. Finally, the ‘standard’ nature of a commission or its perceived lack of influence does not exempt the licensee from the legal obligation to provide a reasonable estimate of the remuneration received from the lender.
Takeaway: Mortgage brokers must provide clear and reasonable estimates of both upfront and trail commissions in the Credit Proposal Disclosure Document to ensure full transparency and compliance with the NCCP Act.