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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Working as the operations manager for a payment services provider, you encounter a situation involving Flood insurance (NFIP, private flood insurance) during control testing. Upon examining a policy exception request, you discover that a commercial borrower is attempting to substitute their existing National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) policy with a new private flood insurance contract for a property located in a Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA). The borrower argues that the private policy is superior because it offers higher limits and a shorter waiting period. However, the internal compliance review flagged the private policy because its definition of ‘flood’ is more restrictive than the definition used in the Standard Flood Insurance Policy (SFIP). Under federal lending regulations regarding the mandatory purchase of flood insurance, what is the primary requirement the private policy must meet to be accepted by the lender?
Correct
Correct: Under the Biggert-Waters Flood Insurance Reform Act and subsequent regulations, regulated lenders must accept private flood insurance that meets the statutory definition. A critical component of this definition is the ‘at least as broad as’ requirement. This means the private policy must provide coverage, deductibles, exclusions, and conditions that are equivalent to or better than those found in the Standard Flood Insurance Policy (SFIP) issued by the NFIP. If the private policy’s definition of ‘flood’ is more restrictive than the SFIP’s definition, it fails this requirement.
Incorrect: While insurer solvency and state licensing are important for general insurance operations, they do not satisfy the specific ‘at least as broad as’ regulatory standard required for mandatory flood insurance compliance. Private flood insurance is often preferred specifically because it can offer shorter waiting periods than the NFIP’s thirty-day rule, so requiring a thirty-day period is not a condition for acceptance. A ‘Federal Consistency Clause’ is not a recognized regulatory requirement; the policy itself must be evaluated based on its existing terms and conditions relative to the SFIP.
Takeaway: To satisfy federal mandatory purchase requirements, a private flood insurance policy must provide coverage that is at least as broad as the Standard Flood Insurance Policy (SFIP).
Incorrect
Correct: Under the Biggert-Waters Flood Insurance Reform Act and subsequent regulations, regulated lenders must accept private flood insurance that meets the statutory definition. A critical component of this definition is the ‘at least as broad as’ requirement. This means the private policy must provide coverage, deductibles, exclusions, and conditions that are equivalent to or better than those found in the Standard Flood Insurance Policy (SFIP) issued by the NFIP. If the private policy’s definition of ‘flood’ is more restrictive than the SFIP’s definition, it fails this requirement.
Incorrect: While insurer solvency and state licensing are important for general insurance operations, they do not satisfy the specific ‘at least as broad as’ regulatory standard required for mandatory flood insurance compliance. Private flood insurance is often preferred specifically because it can offer shorter waiting periods than the NFIP’s thirty-day rule, so requiring a thirty-day period is not a condition for acceptance. A ‘Federal Consistency Clause’ is not a recognized regulatory requirement; the policy itself must be evaluated based on its existing terms and conditions relative to the SFIP.
Takeaway: To satisfy federal mandatory purchase requirements, a private flood insurance policy must provide coverage that is at least as broad as the Standard Flood Insurance Policy (SFIP).
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
As the compliance officer at a payment services provider, you are reviewing Ratemaking and pricing (loss costs, expense loading, profit loading, rate making methods) during outsourcing when an incident report arrives on your desk. It reveals that the firm’s captive insurance subsidiary is launching a new indemnity product for digital transaction errors in a jurisdiction where the company has never operated. The report highlights a disagreement between the underwriters and the outsourced actuaries: the actuaries want to use a method that calculates the rate based on the expected dollar amount of losses per transaction, while the underwriters are insisting on a method that adjusts a base rate that does not yet exist for this region. Based on the need to develop a primary rate without existing premium data, which ratemaking method should be utilized?
Correct
Correct: The pure premium method is the appropriate choice for developing new rates when historical premium data is unavailable. It calculates the rate by adding the pure premium (the amount needed to pay losses) to the expense provision and profit loading. Unlike the loss ratio method, it does not require a pre-existing ‘current’ rate to adjust, making it ideal for new products or new territories.
Incorrect: The loss ratio method is incorrect because it is used to modify existing rates and requires current earned premiums, which are unavailable in a new territory. Retrospective rating is a pricing plan that adjusts the premium after the policy period based on actual losses, not a method for developing the initial manual rate. Schedule rating is a form of merit rating that modifies an already established manual rate based on specific risk characteristics; it cannot be used to create the base rate itself.
Takeaway: The pure premium method is the fundamental approach for establishing new insurance rates when no prior premium history exists to facilitate a loss ratio adjustment.
Incorrect
Correct: The pure premium method is the appropriate choice for developing new rates when historical premium data is unavailable. It calculates the rate by adding the pure premium (the amount needed to pay losses) to the expense provision and profit loading. Unlike the loss ratio method, it does not require a pre-existing ‘current’ rate to adjust, making it ideal for new products or new territories.
Incorrect: The loss ratio method is incorrect because it is used to modify existing rates and requires current earned premiums, which are unavailable in a new territory. Retrospective rating is a pricing plan that adjusts the premium after the policy period based on actual losses, not a method for developing the initial manual rate. Schedule rating is a form of merit rating that modifies an already established manual rate based on specific risk characteristics; it cannot be used to create the base rate itself.
Takeaway: The pure premium method is the fundamental approach for establishing new insurance rates when no prior premium history exists to facilitate a loss ratio adjustment.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
What control mechanism is essential for managing Reinsurance principles and types (proportional vs. non-proportional, facultative vs. treaty)? In the context of a primary insurer expanding into a specialized commercial market, the board of directors is concerned about the potential for catastrophic loss accumulation and the impact on statutory surplus. To address these concerns while maintaining regulatory compliance, the insurer must evaluate its reinsurance program structure to ensure it effectively mitigates risk while adhering to professional standards.
Correct
Correct: A comprehensive reinsurance strategy serves as a fundamental control by aligning the insurer’s risk appetite with its financial capacity. By setting retention limits, the insurer protects its statutory surplus. Establishing criteria for treaty versus facultative placements ensures that standard risks are handled efficiently while unique exposures receive individual underwriting attention. Furthermore, mandatory financial reviews of reinsurers are critical for managing counterparty credit risk, which is a key regulatory and solvency requirement.
Incorrect: Focusing primarily on ceding commissions in facultative agreements neglects the core risk management and solvency objectives of reinsurance. Using a quota share treaty does not eliminate the need for internal underwriting audits; primary insurers must maintain underwriting integrity to satisfy reinsurers and regulators. Relying exclusively on a broker for credit analysis is an inadequate control, as the primary insurer has a non-delegable responsibility to perform its own due diligence on the financial strength of its reinsurers.
Takeaway: Effective reinsurance management requires a structured framework that balances risk retention, appropriate placement types, and rigorous counterparty credit monitoring to protect the insurer’s solvency.
Incorrect
Correct: A comprehensive reinsurance strategy serves as a fundamental control by aligning the insurer’s risk appetite with its financial capacity. By setting retention limits, the insurer protects its statutory surplus. Establishing criteria for treaty versus facultative placements ensures that standard risks are handled efficiently while unique exposures receive individual underwriting attention. Furthermore, mandatory financial reviews of reinsurers are critical for managing counterparty credit risk, which is a key regulatory and solvency requirement.
Incorrect: Focusing primarily on ceding commissions in facultative agreements neglects the core risk management and solvency objectives of reinsurance. Using a quota share treaty does not eliminate the need for internal underwriting audits; primary insurers must maintain underwriting integrity to satisfy reinsurers and regulators. Relying exclusively on a broker for credit analysis is an inadequate control, as the primary insurer has a non-delegable responsibility to perform its own due diligence on the financial strength of its reinsurers.
Takeaway: Effective reinsurance management requires a structured framework that balances risk retention, appropriate placement types, and rigorous counterparty credit monitoring to protect the insurer’s solvency.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
The monitoring system at a mid-sized retail bank has flagged an anomaly related to Commercial property coverage forms (building, business personal property, business income, extra expense) during record-keeping. Investigation reveals that during a post-loss audit of a fire claim at a suburban branch, the bank’s risk management department categorized $50,000 for a temporary mobile branch as ‘Extra Expense.’ The internal auditor noted that this expenditure only mitigated $30,000 of potential lost net income, leading to a query about whether the remaining $20,000 is recoverable under the standard ISO Business Income (and Extra Expense) Coverage Form. Which statement correctly describes the recovery of these costs under the Extra Expense coverage?
Correct
Correct: Under the ISO Business Income (and Extra Expense) Coverage Form, Extra Expense coverage is designed to pay for necessary expenses the insured incurs during the period of restoration that would not have been incurred if there had been no physical loss. A key feature of this specific form is that Extra Expenses are covered even if they do not successfully reduce the business income loss. This allows an insured, such as a bank, to prioritize maintaining operations and customer service even if the cost of doing so exceeds the immediate financial benefit of the saved income.
Incorrect: The limitation described in the second option actually applies to the ‘Expenses to Reduce Loss’ provision found in the Business Income (Without Extra Expense) form, where coverage is capped at the amount of loss avoided. The third option is incorrect because the Agreed Value provision is used to waive the coinsurance requirement and does not expand the definition of Extra Expense. The fourth option is incorrect because while Business Income (loss of net income) is typically subject to a 72-hour waiting period, Extra Expense coverage begins immediately after the direct physical loss.
Takeaway: Extra Expense coverage pays for the costs of continuing operations after a loss regardless of whether those costs mitigate the actual business income loss.
Incorrect
Correct: Under the ISO Business Income (and Extra Expense) Coverage Form, Extra Expense coverage is designed to pay for necessary expenses the insured incurs during the period of restoration that would not have been incurred if there had been no physical loss. A key feature of this specific form is that Extra Expenses are covered even if they do not successfully reduce the business income loss. This allows an insured, such as a bank, to prioritize maintaining operations and customer service even if the cost of doing so exceeds the immediate financial benefit of the saved income.
Incorrect: The limitation described in the second option actually applies to the ‘Expenses to Reduce Loss’ provision found in the Business Income (Without Extra Expense) form, where coverage is capped at the amount of loss avoided. The third option is incorrect because the Agreed Value provision is used to waive the coinsurance requirement and does not expand the definition of Extra Expense. The fourth option is incorrect because while Business Income (loss of net income) is typically subject to a 72-hour waiting period, Extra Expense coverage begins immediately after the direct physical loss.
Takeaway: Extra Expense coverage pays for the costs of continuing operations after a loss regardless of whether those costs mitigate the actual business income loss.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
During a committee meeting at an insurer, a question arises about Utmost good faith as part of onboarding. The discussion reveals that a senior underwriter is reviewing a commercial property application submitted 14 days ago. The applicant failed to mention a previous fire loss at a secondary warehouse, even though the application specifically requested a five-year loss history. The underwriter notes that while the omission may not have been a deliberate attempt to defraud, the undisclosed loss would have significantly altered the premium calculation or the decision to bind coverage. Based on the principle of utmost good faith, what is the primary legal justification for the insurer to potentially void the contract in this scenario?
Correct
Correct: The principle of utmost good faith (uberrimae fidei) requires a higher standard of honesty than typical commercial contracts. It imposes a duty on the applicant to disclose all material facts—information that would affect the insurer’s decision to accept the risk or the premium charged. Concealment is the failure to disclose such facts, and because the insurer relies on this information to assess risk, a material concealment provides grounds to void the contract.
Incorrect: Proving specific intent to deceive is often a requirement for certain types of fraud, but under the principle of utmost good faith, the failure to disclose a material fact (concealment) is sufficient to jeopardize the contract. Caveat emptor, or ‘let the buyer beware,’ does not apply to insurance; instead, the parties have an affirmative duty to speak. A warranty is a specific statement or promise incorporated into the policy that must be strictly true; an omission on an application is generally treated as concealment or misrepresentation rather than a breach of warranty.
Takeaway: Utmost good faith requires the disclosure of all material facts, and the concealment of such facts allows an insurer to void the policy because it undermines the risk assessment process.
Incorrect
Correct: The principle of utmost good faith (uberrimae fidei) requires a higher standard of honesty than typical commercial contracts. It imposes a duty on the applicant to disclose all material facts—information that would affect the insurer’s decision to accept the risk or the premium charged. Concealment is the failure to disclose such facts, and because the insurer relies on this information to assess risk, a material concealment provides grounds to void the contract.
Incorrect: Proving specific intent to deceive is often a requirement for certain types of fraud, but under the principle of utmost good faith, the failure to disclose a material fact (concealment) is sufficient to jeopardize the contract. Caveat emptor, or ‘let the buyer beware,’ does not apply to insurance; instead, the parties have an affirmative duty to speak. A warranty is a specific statement or promise incorporated into the policy that must be strictly true; an omission on an application is generally treated as concealment or misrepresentation rather than a breach of warranty.
Takeaway: Utmost good faith requires the disclosure of all material facts, and the concealment of such facts allows an insurer to void the policy because it undermines the risk assessment process.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Which description best captures the essence of Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy structure for Chartered Property Casualty Underwriter (CPCU)? A risk manager is evaluating a standard ISO CGL policy for a mid-sized corporation to ensure that the administrative and operational components are correctly aligned with the firm’s liability exposures.
Correct
Correct: The standard ISO CGL policy is designed with a modular structure. This includes the Declarations (which specify limits and the insured), the Common Policy Conditions (which apply to all coverage parts in a package policy), and the CGL Coverage Form itself. Within that form, there are three separate insuring agreements: Coverage A for Bodily Injury and Property Damage, Coverage B for Personal and Advertising Injury, and Coverage C for Medical Payments. This structure allows for clear differentiation between different types of liability and the specific exclusions or conditions that apply to each.
Incorrect: The suggestion that the CGL is an indivisible contract combining first-party property and third-party liability is incorrect because the CGL is strictly a third-party liability form; property coverage requires a separate form or policy. The idea that Coverage C (Medical Payments) is the primary agreement is a misconception, as Coverage C is a limited, no-fault goodwill coverage, while Coverages A and B provide the core liability protection. Finally, the claim that the Declarations page contains all exclusions is false, as exclusions are primarily located within the specific Coverage Forms and through various endorsements.
Takeaway: The CGL policy is a modular contract featuring common conditions and three distinct insuring agreements that categorize different types of third-party liability exposures.
Incorrect
Correct: The standard ISO CGL policy is designed with a modular structure. This includes the Declarations (which specify limits and the insured), the Common Policy Conditions (which apply to all coverage parts in a package policy), and the CGL Coverage Form itself. Within that form, there are three separate insuring agreements: Coverage A for Bodily Injury and Property Damage, Coverage B for Personal and Advertising Injury, and Coverage C for Medical Payments. This structure allows for clear differentiation between different types of liability and the specific exclusions or conditions that apply to each.
Incorrect: The suggestion that the CGL is an indivisible contract combining first-party property and third-party liability is incorrect because the CGL is strictly a third-party liability form; property coverage requires a separate form or policy. The idea that Coverage C (Medical Payments) is the primary agreement is a misconception, as Coverage C is a limited, no-fault goodwill coverage, while Coverages A and B provide the core liability protection. Finally, the claim that the Declarations page contains all exclusions is false, as exclusions are primarily located within the specific Coverage Forms and through various endorsements.
Takeaway: The CGL policy is a modular contract featuring common conditions and three distinct insuring agreements that categorize different types of third-party liability exposures.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
The operations team at an insurer has encountered an exception involving Difference in conditions (DIC) coverage during business continuity. They report that a policyholder’s primary commercial property policy excludes several catastrophic perils, including earthquake and flood, which are instead covered under a separate DIC policy. During a review of a claim filed after a seismic event, it was discovered that the DIC policy does not include a coinsurance clause, unlike the primary policy. The operations team must determine the primary purpose and typical application of this DIC policy in relation to the underlying coverage.
Correct
Correct: Difference in conditions (DIC) insurance is specifically designed to fill gaps in a commercial property insurance program. Its primary functions are to provide coverage for perils that are excluded in standard commercial property policies (most notably flood and earthquake) and to provide additional limits of insurance. A distinguishing feature of DIC policies is that they generally do not contain a coinsurance clause, which provides the insured with more flexibility in loss recovery for those specific catastrophic perils.
Incorrect: The suggestion that the policy serves as a secondary layer for fire and lightning describes a standard excess property policy rather than a DIC policy, which focuses on different perils. The idea that it maintains identical deductible structures is incorrect because DIC policies typically feature much higher deductibles for the catastrophic perils they cover compared to the primary policy’s basic perils. Finally, DIC is a property coverage, not a casualty coverage like workers compensation or general liability, and it is typically written on non-filed forms rather than standardized state-filed forms.
Takeaway: DIC insurance fills gaps by covering perils excluded in primary property policies and typically operates without a coinsurance clause.
Incorrect
Correct: Difference in conditions (DIC) insurance is specifically designed to fill gaps in a commercial property insurance program. Its primary functions are to provide coverage for perils that are excluded in standard commercial property policies (most notably flood and earthquake) and to provide additional limits of insurance. A distinguishing feature of DIC policies is that they generally do not contain a coinsurance clause, which provides the insured with more flexibility in loss recovery for those specific catastrophic perils.
Incorrect: The suggestion that the policy serves as a secondary layer for fire and lightning describes a standard excess property policy rather than a DIC policy, which focuses on different perils. The idea that it maintains identical deductible structures is incorrect because DIC policies typically feature much higher deductibles for the catastrophic perils they cover compared to the primary policy’s basic perils. Finally, DIC is a property coverage, not a casualty coverage like workers compensation or general liability, and it is typically written on non-filed forms rather than standardized state-filed forms.
Takeaway: DIC insurance fills gaps by covering perils excluded in primary property policies and typically operates without a coinsurance clause.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A regulatory inspection at a broker-dealer focuses on Coverage B: Personal and Advertising Injury Liability in the context of data protection. The examiner notes that the firm recently faced a legal claim after a marketing associate inadvertently included a competitor’s trademarked slogan in a digital social media campaign that ran for 45 days. The broker-dealer’s management seeks to confirm if their Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy will respond to this claim. Which of the following statements best describes the application of Coverage B to this specific scenario?
Correct
Correct: Coverage B (Personal and Advertising Injury Liability) specifically includes ‘infringing upon another’s copyright, trade dress or slogan in your advertisement’ as a covered offense. Because the scenario specifies the associate acted inadvertently, the ‘Knowing Violation Of Rights Of Another’ exclusion would not typically apply, allowing the policy to respond to the slogan infringement claim.
Incorrect: The suggestion that Coverage B is a primary source for data breach or PII protection is incorrect, as standard CGL policies often contain specific exclusions for electronic data and cyber-related privacy breaches. The claim that coverage is restricted to traditional print media is false; the definition of ‘advertisement’ in the standard CGL form is broad enough to encompass digital and social media. Finally, Coverage B is designed to cover non-physical injuries; requiring tangible property damage or bodily injury describes the triggers for Coverage A, not Coverage B.
Takeaway: Coverage B of the CGL policy covers specific non-physical offenses such as slogan infringement in advertisements, provided the insured did not knowingly violate the rights of the other party.
Incorrect
Correct: Coverage B (Personal and Advertising Injury Liability) specifically includes ‘infringing upon another’s copyright, trade dress or slogan in your advertisement’ as a covered offense. Because the scenario specifies the associate acted inadvertently, the ‘Knowing Violation Of Rights Of Another’ exclusion would not typically apply, allowing the policy to respond to the slogan infringement claim.
Incorrect: The suggestion that Coverage B is a primary source for data breach or PII protection is incorrect, as standard CGL policies often contain specific exclusions for electronic data and cyber-related privacy breaches. The claim that coverage is restricted to traditional print media is false; the definition of ‘advertisement’ in the standard CGL form is broad enough to encompass digital and social media. Finally, Coverage B is designed to cover non-physical injuries; requiring tangible property damage or bodily injury describes the triggers for Coverage A, not Coverage B.
Takeaway: Coverage B of the CGL policy covers specific non-physical offenses such as slogan infringement in advertisements, provided the insured did not knowingly violate the rights of the other party.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
During a periodic assessment of Insurable interest in various lines of insurance as part of change management at a credit union, auditors observed that the institution continues to pay premiums on a key-person life insurance policy for a retired CEO. Simultaneously, the credit union is attempting to file a property insurance claim for a building where the mortgage was fully paid off by the borrower two weeks before a windstorm caused significant damage. Which of the following best describes the validity of the credit union’s insurable interest in these two scenarios?
Correct
Correct: In life insurance, the legal requirement for insurable interest must be met only at the inception of the policy. Therefore, the credit union can continue to hold and eventually collect on the policy for the retired CEO. In contrast, property insurance requires that an insurable interest exists at the time of the loss. Since the mortgage was satisfied two weeks prior to the windstorm, the credit union no longer had a financial stake in the property and cannot collect the insurance proceeds.
Incorrect: The suggestion that property interest remains valid after mortgage satisfaction is incorrect because the financial interest is extinguished once the debt is paid. The claim that life insurance is voided by retirement is incorrect because life insurance only requires interest at inception. The idea that premium payments alone maintain validity ignores the legal necessity of insurable interest. Finally, the claim that neither is valid misapplies the timing requirements of insurable interest, which differ between life and property lines.
Takeaway: Insurable interest must exist at the time of loss for property insurance, whereas for life insurance, it is only required at the time the policy is issued.
Incorrect
Correct: In life insurance, the legal requirement for insurable interest must be met only at the inception of the policy. Therefore, the credit union can continue to hold and eventually collect on the policy for the retired CEO. In contrast, property insurance requires that an insurable interest exists at the time of the loss. Since the mortgage was satisfied two weeks prior to the windstorm, the credit union no longer had a financial stake in the property and cannot collect the insurance proceeds.
Incorrect: The suggestion that property interest remains valid after mortgage satisfaction is incorrect because the financial interest is extinguished once the debt is paid. The claim that life insurance is voided by retirement is incorrect because life insurance only requires interest at inception. The idea that premium payments alone maintain validity ignores the legal necessity of insurable interest. Finally, the claim that neither is valid misapplies the timing requirements of insurable interest, which differ between life and property lines.
Takeaway: Insurable interest must exist at the time of loss for property insurance, whereas for life insurance, it is only required at the time the policy is issued.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
How can Commercial General Liability Insurance be most effectively translated into action when determining coverage for a property damage claim resulting from a product manufactured in a prior year but causing damage in the current year under an occurrence-based policy? A manufacturing firm produced a batch of industrial valves in 2021. One of these valves failed in 2023, causing significant water damage to a client’s facility. The firm has maintained continuous occurrence-based Commercial General Liability (CGL) coverage with different insurers each year.
Correct
Correct: Under a standard occurrence-based Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy, the coverage is triggered by the date the bodily injury or property damage occurs. In this scenario, because the property damage took place in 2023, the 2023 policy is the one that responds to the claim. The date of manufacture or the date the product was sold is irrelevant to the trigger of coverage for an occurrence form, provided the damage happened during the policy period.
Incorrect: The idea that the policy active during the year of manufacture must respond is incorrect because occurrence triggers focus on the timing of the resulting damage, not the underlying cause or manufacture. Retroactive dates are a characteristic of claims-made policies, not occurrence-based policies, and are used to limit coverage for events occurring before a certain date. The known-loss provision is designed to prevent insurance from covering damage that the insured was already aware of before the policy began, rather than shifting liability back to the date of a product’s introduction to the market.
Takeaway: An occurrence-based CGL policy is triggered by the timing of the actual injury or damage, regardless of when the product causing the damage was manufactured.
Incorrect
Correct: Under a standard occurrence-based Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy, the coverage is triggered by the date the bodily injury or property damage occurs. In this scenario, because the property damage took place in 2023, the 2023 policy is the one that responds to the claim. The date of manufacture or the date the product was sold is irrelevant to the trigger of coverage for an occurrence form, provided the damage happened during the policy period.
Incorrect: The idea that the policy active during the year of manufacture must respond is incorrect because occurrence triggers focus on the timing of the resulting damage, not the underlying cause or manufacture. Retroactive dates are a characteristic of claims-made policies, not occurrence-based policies, and are used to limit coverage for events occurring before a certain date. The known-loss provision is designed to prevent insurance from covering damage that the insured was already aware of before the policy began, rather than shifting liability back to the date of a product’s introduction to the market.
Takeaway: An occurrence-based CGL policy is triggered by the timing of the actual injury or damage, regardless of when the product causing the damage was manufactured.